Topic 1. Types of Structured Products
Topic 2. Capital Structure in Securitization
Topic 3. Waterfall Structure
Securitization: Pooling of credit-sensitive assets and creation of new securities (structured products/portfolio credit products) whose cash flows are based on underlying loans or credit claims, with risk-return characteristics varying dramatically from original assets
Structured Products: New securities created through the securitization process. Each structured product has its own unique risk and return characteristics, which can differ significantly from the underlying assets.
Covered Bonds:
Structure: On-balance sheet securitizations where a mortgage pool is separated into a covered pool on the originator's balance sheet
Mortgage Pass-Through Securities:
Structure: True off-balance sheet securitizations where investors receive cash flows based entirely on pool performance less servicer fees
Collateralized Mortgage Obligations (CMOs):
Structured Credit Products:
Credit Risk Tranching: Pool backed by risky debt with tranches having different credit risk levels
Asset Backed Securities (ABSs):
Q1. How many of the following statements concerning the capital structure in a securitization are most likely correct?
I. The mezzanine tranche is typically the smallest tranche size.
II. The mezzanine and equity tranches typically offer fixed coupons.
III. The senior tranche typically receives the lowest coupon.
A. No statements are correct.
B. One statement is correct.
C. Two statements are correct.
D. Three statements are correct.
Explanation: B is correct.
Senior tranches are perceived to be the safest, so they receive the lowest coupon. The equity tranche receives residual cash flows and no explicit coupon. Although the mezzanine tranche is often thin, the equity tranche is typically the thinnest slice.
Q2. Assume there are 100 identical loans with a principal balance of $500,000 each. Based on a credit analysis, a 300 basis point spread is applied to the borrowers. The market reference rate is currently 4% and the coupon rate will reset annually. The senior, junior, and equity tranches are 75%, 20%, and 5% of the pool, respectively. The spreads on the senior and mezzanine tranches are 2% and 6%.
Excess cash flow is diverted above $1,000,000. Assume the default rate is 2%. What are the cash flows to the mezzanine and excess trust account in the first period?
Explanation: A is correct.
The interest rate on the loans = 4% (market reference rate) + 3% (spread) = 7%. Therefore, the total collateral cash flows in the first period = 100 × $500,000 × 7% × (1 − 0.02) = $3,430,000. The senior tranche receives $50million × 0.75 × (4% + 2%) = $2,250,000. Similarly, the mezzanine tranche receives $50million × 0.20 × (4% + 6%) = $1,000,000. Next, the residual cash flows are calculated: $3,430,000 − $2,250,000 − $1,000,000 = $180,000. Since $180,000 < $1,000,000, all cash flows are claimed by the equity investors and there is no diversion to the trust account.
Topic 1. Securitization Participants
Topic 2. Three-Tiered Securitization Structure
Q1. Which of the following participants in the securitization process is least likely to face a conflict of interest?
A. Credit rating agency and servicer.
B. Servicer and underwriter.
C. Custodian and trustee.
D. Trustee and manager.
Explanation: C is correct.
The custodian and trustee play the least important roles in the securitization process. The servicer, originator, underwriter, credit rating agency, and manager all face conflicts of interest to varying degrees.
Cash Flows in a three-tiered securitization (senior,mezzanine, and equity):
Overcollateralization (OC) Determination Process: Let denotes the amount diverted to the spread trust in year t, with maximum allowable diversion K.
Default and Recovery Calculations: Assume 40% recovery rate.
Recovery Amount:
where number of defaults in period t
Total Trust Deposit:
Accumulated Trust Account Balance:
Shortfall Coverage Test:
Equity Cash Flows:
Terminal Year Examination: Surviving loans return principal, no OC diversion (structure ends), no need to test OC triggers since there is no diversion to the trust
Loan Interest:
Principal Redemption:
Final Recovery:
Residual Trust:
Waterfall Distribution of Terminal Cash Flows:
Example 1: Determine the terminal cash flows to senior, junior, and equity tranches given the following information. The original loan pool included 100 loans with $1 million par value and a fixed coupon of 8%. The number of surviving loans is 90. The par for the senior and junior tranches is 75% and 20%, respectively. The equity investors contributed the remaining 5%. There were two defaults with recovery rate of 40% recovered at the end of the period. The value of the trust account at the beginning of the period is $16million earning 4% per annum.
Example 2: Now, continue with the same example, but change the interest rate to 5% and the beginning OC value to $3million. The first two steps will be the same as before.
Example 3: Finally, continue with the same example, but change the interest rate to 4% and the beginning OC value to $1million. Assume a recovery rate of zero. Again, the first two steps are the same as before.
Topic 1. Credit Losses Simulation Approach
Topic 2. Impact of PD and Default Correlation
Topic 3. Measuring Default Sensitivities
Topic 4. Risks for Structured Products
Topic 5. Implied Correlation
Topic 6. Structured Products Motivations
Low Correlation Scenario: When correlation approaches zero, loan defaults are independent; in large portfolios, defaults cluster near mathematical expectation (analogous to coin flips: 1,000 flips yield ~500 heads, rarely <400 or >600), making senior tranches unlikely to be impaired
Q1. Which of the following statements about portfolio losses and default correlation are most likely correct?
I. Increasing default correlation decreases senior tranche values but increases equity tranche values.
II. At high default rates, increasing default correlation decreases mezzanine bond prices.
A. I only.
B. II only.
C. Both I and II.
D. Neither I nor II.
Explanation: A is correct.
Statement I is true. Increasing default correlation increases the likelihood of more extreme portfolio returns (very high or very low number of defaults). The increased likelihood of high defaults negatively impacts the senior tranche. On the other hand, the increased likelihood of few defaults benefits the equity tranche as it bears first loss.
Statement II is false. At high default rates, increasing the correlation increases the likelihood of more extreme portfolio returns which benefits equity investors and mezzanine investors.
Q2. Which of the following statements best describes the calculation of implied correlation?
A. The implied correlation for the mezzanine tranche assumes non-constant pairwise correlation.
B. Observable market prices of credit default swaps are used to infer the tranche values.
C. The tranche pricing function is calibrated to match the model price with the market price.
D. The risk-adjusted default probabilities are used in model calibration.
Explanation: C is correct.
Starting with observed market prices and a pricing function for the tranches, it is possible to back out the implied correlation to calibrate the model price with the market price. The computation of implied correlation assumes constant pairwise correlation. Both credit default swap and tranche values are observed. Observed tranche values are used in conjunction with risk-neutral default probabilities to compute implied correlation.
Loan Originator Motivations:
Lower Cost of Funding: Securitization provides cheaper financing than retaining loans or selling in secondary markets due to diversification of loan pools and originator's reputation for high-quality underwriting
Investor Motivations
Access to Diversified Loan Pools: Investors gain exposure to diversified loan portfolios (e.g., mortgages, auto loans) not otherwise accessible without securitization